General Oncology MCQ : Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1 : Which type of mutations are found most commonly in affected oncogenes:

a) Missense
b) Nonsense
c) Frame shift
d) Silent

Answer : missense

Question 2 : Which type of mutations most commonly affect tumor suppressor genes:

a) Missense
b) Deletions having hotspots
c) Silent mutations involving one allele
d) Many mutations resulting in LOH

Answer : Many mutations resulting in LOH

Question 3 : The first curated version of the Human Genome Project was released in:

a) 2001
b) 1999
c) 2004
d) 2000

Answer : 2004

Question 4 : BRAF mutations are mutually exclusive with mutations in :

d) c-KIT

Answer : KRAS

Question 5 : What percentage of tyrosine kinase domains in colorectal cancer have a mutation:

a) < 5%
b) 2 – 10%
c) 30%
d) 60%

Answer : 30%

Question 6 : What percentage of colorectal cancers have mutations involving PIK3CA:

a) 12
b) 22
c) 32
d) 42

Answer : 32%

Question 7 : The most commonly mutated oncogenes are:

a) Rb and p53
b) BRAF and cKIT
c) KRAS and PIK3CA
d) IDH and p53

Answer : KRAS and PIK3CA

Question 8 : Which of the following is a major part of degradome :

a) Lysosomes
b) Proteasomes
c) Proteolytic enzymes
d) Tyrosine kinases

Answer : proteasomes

Question 9 : What number of genes are the coding portion of the human genome:

a) 5000
b) 10000
c) 18000
d) 30000

Answer : 18000

Question 10 : How many somatic alterations are present in the coding region of tumor:

a) < 5
b) 10 – 30
c) 30 – 100
d) > 100

Answer : 30 – 100

Question 11 : The majority of mutations affecting the coding region of a tumor are : 

a) Deletions
b) Amplifications
c) Small insertions
d) Single base substitutions

Answer : Single base substitutions

Question 12 : The solid tumors of children compared with adult solid tumors have :

a) More gene alterations
b) Less gene alterations
c) Similar frequency of alterations
d) Similar frequency of alterations but radically different regions of involvement

Answer : less gene alterations

Question 13 : In GBM patients, IDH 1 mutations occur predominantly in:

a) Young patients
b) Pediatric patients
c) Middle aged patients
d) Elderly population

Answer : Young patients

Question 14 : IDH1 R132 somatic mutation is found in what percent of grade II and III astrocytoma and oligodendroglioma:

a) 25
b) <5
c) 70
d) 35

Answer : 70%

Question 15 : What percent of primary GBM patients have mutations in IDH1:

a) 55
b) <10
c) 25
d) >90

Answer : <10% 

Question 16 : Which of the following is/are sequencing method(s) utilized in the modern next generation sequencing:

a) Cyclic reversible termination
b) Single nucleotide addition
c) Real time sequencing
d) Sequencing by litigation
e) All of the above

Answer : All of the above

Question 17 : The cancer patient, the genome of whom was the first to be sequenced, was suffering from:

a) ALL
b) CML
c) AML
d) Lung cancer

Answer : AML

Question 18 : What percentage of AML patients have IDH1 or IDH2 mutations:

a) <5
b) 50 – 70
c) 20 – 30
d) 0

Answer : 20 – 30%

Question 19 : The massive genomic rearrangement , occurring as a result of one-step catastrophic event in oncogenesis is known as :

a) Chromoplexy
b) Necrosis
c) Chromothripsis
d) Chromopraxia

Answer : Chromothripsis

Question 20 : The process of highly interdependent chromosomal translocation and deletions, ultimately leading to cancer is known as:

a) Chromoplexy
b) Chromothipsis
c) Chromopraxia
d) Global mutation

Answer : Chromoplexy

Question 21 : Which human cancers have the highest mutation burden :

a) AML and ALL
b) Lung and prostate
c) Lung and melanoma
d) HCC and colon

Answer : Lung and melanoma

Question 22 : The most frequent somatic mutations detected in malignant tumors are :

a) Nucleotide substitutions
b) Small insertions
c) Small deletions
d) Copy number variation

Answer : Nucleotide substitutions

Question 23 : TMPRSS2-ERG mutations are found most commonly in cancer of :

a) Lung
b) Breast
c) Prostate
d) Melanoma

Answer : prostate

Question 24 : A handful of genes which are mutated in a high fraction of tumors are known as:

a) Mountains
b) Hills
c) Peaks
d) Summits

Answer : mountains

Question 25 : PIK3CA is usually mutually exclusive with mutations of:

d) Rb

Answer : PTEN

Question 26 : Passenger genes are not ultimately pathogenic but mapping them is important because:

a) They lead to discovery of driver mutations
b) They expose the DNA repair pathways imperative to cancer development
c) They shine light on the previously incurred DNA damage
d) They work as unique signatures for a particular tumor
e) All of the above

Answer : All of the above

Question 27 : A tumor’s genomic landscape has:

a) More driver mutations than passenger mutations
b) More passenger mutations than driver mutations
c) Both of these mutations have similar frequencies
d) Driver genes are the mountains of the genome

Answer : More passenger mutations than driver mutations

Question 28 : Which kinds of mutations don’t alter the protein sequence thus usually not leading to tumorigenesis:

a) Synonymous mutations
b) Nonsynonymous mutations

Answer : Synonymous mutations 

Question 29 : In molecular studies of cancer, “SIFT” stands for:

a) Standard international frequency table
b) Sorting intolerant from tolerant
c) Standardized for frequency of toleration
d) Spontaneously inciting frequency of tumorigenic (profile)

Answer : Sorting intolerant from tolerant

Question 30 : KRAS mutations are most frequently found in cancers of:

a) Pancreas
b) Lung
c) Breast
d) Colon

Answer : pancreas 

Question 31 : What percentage of melanoma patients BRAF mutations are found :

a) 90
b) 60 – 70
c) < 10
d) 30 – 40

Answer : 60 – 70

Question 32 : CRISPR technology works by detection of :

a) RNA sequences
b) Palindromic repeats
c) Proteomic analysis
d) Sequential abrogation

Answer : Palindromic repeats

Question 33 : In identification of neoantigens which is the most challenging aspect:

a) Whole exome sequencing
b) Segregating sequencing data
c) Correlating the mutational load
d) Ascertaining “foreignness” of neoantigen

Answer : Segregating sequencing data

Question 34 : The CIBERSORT algorithm used for evaluating the immune status of the tumor uses what:

a) Mutational load
b) Immunoediting
c) RNA transcripts
d) Protein expression profile

Answer : RNA transcripts

Question 35 : What percentage of colorectal cancers have KRAS mutations:

a) 10
b) 40
c) > 60
d) 2

Answer : 40% 

Question 36 : Cell free DNA can be used in:

a) Genotyping tumors when tissue is not sufficient
b) Monitoring tumor burden and predicting clinical course
c) Monitoring clonal evolution
d) Identifying tumor specific mutations
e) All of the above

Answer : All of the above

Question 37 : Which is not an established use of cell free DNA:

a) Monitoring MRD
b) Screening for nasopharyngeal cancer by assessing circulating plasma derived EBV DNA
c) Studying mutational landscape changes in regards to immunotherapy strategies
d) Screening for HPV load in predicting development of oropharyngeal cancer and cervical cancer

Answer : Screening for HPV load in predicting development of oropharyngeal cancer and cervical cancer

Question 38 : What percentage of lung cancer patients who relapse, develop acquired resistance to gefitinib due to T790M mutation:

a) 20
b) > 90
c) 50
d) < 10

Answer : 50% 

Question 39 : Which mutations in colorectal cancer impart resistance to EGFR targeting therapies:

c) Amplification of HER 2
d) Amplification of MET
e) All of the above

Answer : all of the above

Question 40 : How many genes are in the whole exome of a human?

a) 30000
b) 20000
c) < 5000
d) 100000

Answer : 20000

Question 41 : The ideal cancer biomarkers should have which of the following qualities?

a) High analytical validity
b) High clinical validity
c) High clinical utility
d) All of the above

Answer : all of the above

Question 42 : The ability of a biomarker to predict the behaviour of the disease or response to therapy is known as :

a) Clinical utility
b) Clinical validity
c) Analytical validity
d) Translational validity

Answer : clinical validity

Question 43 : Genetic alterations occurring in 1% or more of the human population are known as :

a) Mutations
b) Polymorphisms
c) Pleiotropism
d) Phenotype variations

Answer : polymorphisms

Question 44 : Tumor suppressor genes, like TP63, require two hits, thus affecting both of the alleles to inactivate their function. What kind of mutations occur in these genes?

a) Gain of function
b) Loss of function
c) Both
d) None of the above

Answer : Loss of function

Question 45 : Proto-oncogenes require gain of function or activating mutations to induce tumor formation. How many hits do they usually need to become mutated:

a) One allele
b) Both alleles
c) Cascade involving multiple alleles
d) It depends on the oncogene involved

Answer : one allele

Question 46 : ALK gene is affected in:

a) Non-small cell lung cancer
b) Neuroblastoma
c) Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
d) All of the above

Answer : All of the above

Question 47 : What percentage of CML patients don’t show t(9;22) by G banding?

a) 5 – 10
b) 20 – 30
c) < 1
d) The always show this abnormality

Answer : 5 – 10%

Question 48 : Which kind of karyotype has the best prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukemia patients?

a) Near diploid
b) Hypodiploid
c) Hyperdiploid
d) Normal karyotype

Answer : hyperdiploid

Question 49 : What percentage of undifferentiated or poorly differentiated neuroblastoma patients have MYCN amplification?

a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

Answer : 40%

Question 50 : MYCN amplification has what prognostic significance in neuroblastoma patients?

a) Good prognosis
b) Poor prognosis
c) No effect on prognosis
d) Very favourable prognosis

Answer : poor prognosis